Is whole milk more pricey than partially skimmed & skimmed

Hi,

I wanted to know if someone can better explain to me why whole milk, milk whose fat is not reduced, costs slightly more than the partially skimmed and skimmed versions.

I know the dairy industry needs milk's cream to produce butter.

Thanks!

Regardless of whether milk is whole, 2, 1, or skim, the fat is removed before pasteurization and homogenization. The fat is then added back in according to the type of milk desired. The reason it costs more is because the fat would normally go towards making butter or cheese but is instead added back to the milk.

Thanks, brianweber!

Just to throw a spanner in the works (I apologise) in Australia it's usually the skimmed milks that cost more, not the full fat milks. I always reasoned it was to do with testing to ensure the milks were at the correct fat levels as the cream needs to be added before homoginisation occurs. Maybe it's just crappy Australian pricing  :gleam:

Just to throw a spanner in the works (I apologise) in Australia it's usually the skimmed milks that cost more, not the full fat milks. I always reasoned it was to do with testing to ensure the milks were at the correct fat levels as the cream needs to be added before homoginisation occurs. Maybe it's just crappy Australian pricing  :gleam:

Thanks. I will investigate better.

More spanners

there is the effect of supply and demand

Cows, bless their little cotton socks, will only ever product whole milk.

If there is significant demand for skimmed milk then butter fat is in surplus and its price drops

If there is demand for fat, then the skimmed milk price drops

Both of these then affect the price of whole milk

Depending on where the demand is within the dairy industry the price of the various components reflects this.

rgds