I belive in the U.S., to consider a coffee decaffienated, it has to have been reduced by 97.5%. Is there any flexibility or tolerance in the accuracy of '% decafeinted' statements?
For example, I know a nutritional panel can be 'off' by up to 20% due to variances in product and lab testing.
What if a coffee is 97.5% reduced caffeine and it is so labeled - but the company has test to show that it is actually had a higher reduction in caffeine? can they list, 99.5 % caffeine free beans...in the ingredient statement?
To what level is accuracy requried? + or - what?
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